This is really, really un-American.
Unfortunately, it is happening in a place far away, and we have no say in it. Later, some judge here will use it as a reference to do the same.
We had one cumulative voting district here in California, but last I heard it was nowhere near as biased as the one in the this article.
Maybe people weren't electing hispanics because they were not the desirable choices. I don't see where a judge gets to re-write election law to obtain a desirable effect.
But why is there no opposition?
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